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Question Number 1882 by madscientist last updated on 21/Oct/15

∫_(−∞) ^∞ ∫_(−∞) ^∞ ∣ψ(r,t)∣∈∣φ(r,t)∣⇒λ(x)   in quantum mechanics would this be  true, if so how?

$$\underset{−\infty} {\overset{\infty} {\int}}\underset{−\infty} {\overset{\infty} {\int}}\mid\psi\left({r},{t}\right)\mid\in\mid\phi\left({r},{t}\right)\mid\Rightarrow\lambda\left({x}\right)\: \\ $$$${in}\:{quantum}\:{mechanics}\:{would}\:{this}\:{be} \\ $$$${true},\:{if}\:{so}\:{how}? \\ $$$$ \\ $$$$ \\ $$

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