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Question Number 189013 by Pengu last updated on 10/Mar/23
Suppose(G,⋅)and(H,∗)aregroups.Takehomomorphismϕ:G→H.Suppose∃g∈G:∣g∣=n,then∣ϕ(g)∣⩽n.Does∀g∈G,∣g∣=∣ϕ(g)∣⇒G≅H?
Answered by aleks041103 last updated on 11/Mar/23
suppose∣ϕ(g)∣=m>n.⇒(ϕ(g))k≠idH,k=1,2,...,m−1But,sinceϕisahomomorhism,then(ϕ(g))k=ϕ(gk)letk=n<m⇒(ϕ(g))n=ϕ(gn)=ϕ(idG)=idHbutsincen<m,then(ϕ(g))n≠idH⇒idH≠idH⇒contradiction⇒∣ϕ(g)∣⩽∣g∣
Commented by aleks041103 last updated on 11/Mar/23
Note:ϕ:(G,⋅)→(H,∗)isahomomorhismiffϕ(g1⋅g2)=ϕ(g1)∗ϕ(g2)⇒thefollowingpropertiesarefollowingϕ(id⋅g)=ϕ(g)=ϕ(id)∗ϕ(g)=id∗ϕ(g)⇒sinceidisuniquethenϕ(id)=id⇒ϕ(g−1⋅g)=ϕ(g−1)∗ϕ(g)=ϕ(id)=id⇒ϕ(g−1)=(ϕ(g))−1
Forthesecondquestion:ifϕ∈Hom(G,H)issurjectiveand∀g∈G:∣g∣=∣ϕ(g)∣thenG≅H.supposeϕisntinjectivethen∃g1,g2∈Gandg1≠g2suchthatϕ(g1)=ϕ(g2)⇒(ϕ(g1))−1∗ϕ(g1)=(ϕ(g1))−1∗ϕ(g2)idH=ϕ(g1−1⋅g2)=ϕ(g3)since∣g∣=∣ϕ(g)∣⇒1=∣idH∣=∣ϕ(g3)∣=∣g3∣⇒∣g3∣=1⇒g31=g3=idG⇒g1−1⋅g2=idG⇒g1=g2⇒contradiction⇒ϕisinjective.Sinceϕisalsosurjective⇒ϕisbijective⇒ϕisbijectivehomomorphism⇒ϕisaisomorphism⇒G≅HifG≅Hthen∃bij.homomorhismϕ:G→Hthenitisobviousthat∣ϕ(g)∣=∣g∣for∀g∈G
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