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Question Number 189901 by cherokeesay last updated on 23/Mar/23

Answered by BaliramKumar last updated on 24/Mar/23

$$4.\left(\mathrm{i}\right)2[\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{\infty }}]=2[\frac{1}{2}-0]=1$$

Answered by talminator2856792 last updated on 24/Mar/23

$$3)$$$$\frac{1}{5}+\frac{2}{6}+\frac{2^2}{7}+\frac{2^3}{8}+\frac{2^4}{9}+.....>\frac{1}{5}+\frac{2}{5\cdot 2}+\frac{2^2}{5\cdot 2^2}+\frac{2^3}{5\cdot 2^3}+\frac{2^4}{5\cdot 2^4}+.....$$$$=\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{5}+.....$$$$=\mathrm{\infty }$$$$\mathrm{diverges}.$$

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