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Question Number 192756 by mokys last updated on 26/May/23

Commented by mokys last updated on 26/May/23

Im cant solve this because its very hard can helps me pleas ?

Imcantsolvethisbecauseitsveryhardcanhelpsmepleas?

Answered by witcher3 last updated on 02/Jun/23

y′=y^((1))  for all the rest  y^((3)) −2x^2 y′′+5xy′+3y=cos(x)  Suppose ∃(y_1 ,y_2 )∈C_3 ^2  such that y_1 and y_2 are  solution   ⇒f=y_1 −y_2  is solution of  f^((3)) −2x^2 f^((2)) +5xf^((1)) +3f=0....(E)  f(−2)=f′(−2)=f^((2)) (−2)=0  applied (E)⇒f^((3)) =0  by reccursion  f^((3)) =2x^2 f^(′′) −5xf′−3f⇒f∈C_4     reccurssiv⇒f∈C_∞   and ∀n∈N f^((2)) (−2)=0  f^((n)) (x)=Σ_(i=0) ^n p(x)f^((i)) (x),∃p∈R^2 [X]  applie taylor arround (−2)  f(x)=Σ_(k=0) ^∞ ((f^((k)) (−2))/(k!))(x+2)^k   but f^((k)) (2)=0,∀k∈N  ⇒f(x)=0  y_1 −y_2 =0⇒y_1 =y_2   ∃ unique solution

y=y(1)foralltheresty(3)2x2y+5xy+3y=cos(x)Suppose(y1,y2)C32suchthaty1andy2aresolutionf=y1y2issolutionoff(3)2x2f(2)+5xf(1)+3f=0....(E)f(2)=f(2)=f(2)(2)=0applied(E)f(3)=0byreccursionf(3)=2x2f5xf3ffC4reccurssivfCandnNf(2)(2)=0f(n)(x)=ni=0p(x)f(i)(x),pR2[X]applietaylorarround(2)f(x)=k=0f(k)(2)k!(x+2)kbutf(k)(2)=0,kNf(x)=0y1y2=0y1=y2uniquesolution

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