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Question Number 194648 by universe last updated on 12/Jul/23

Commented by Frix last updated on 12/Jul/23

(7/8)

78

Commented by universe last updated on 12/Jul/23

solution ?

solution?

Commented by Frix last updated on 12/Jul/23

a=b=c∧d=e=f

a=b=cd=e=f

Answered by witcher3 last updated on 12/Jul/23

(ad+be+cf)≤(√((a^2 +b^2 +c^2 )(d^2 +e^2 +f^2 )))  cachy shwartz   use when we have equality

(ad+be+cf)(a2+b2+c2)(d2+e2+f2)cachyshwartzusewhenwehaveequality

Answered by deleteduser1 last updated on 12/Jul/23

ad+be+cf≤(√(a^2 +b^2 +c^2 ))(√(d^2 +e^2 +f^2 ))=56  Equality holds when a=kd,b=ke,c=kf  ⇒((a+b+c)/(d+e+f))=k  a^2 +b^2 +c^2 =64=k^2 (d^2 +e^2 +f^2 )=49k^2   ⇒k=(8/7)=((a+b+c)/(d+e+f))⇒((d+ef)/(a+b+c))=(7/8)

ad+be+cfa2+b2+c2d2+e2+f2=56Equalityholdswhena=kd,b=ke,c=kfa+b+cd+e+f=ka2+b2+c2=64=k2(d2+e2+f2)=49k2k=87=a+b+cd+e+fd+efa+b+c=78

Answered by mr W last updated on 14/Jul/23

p=(a,b,c)  q=(d,e,f)  ∣p∣=(√(a^2 +b^2 +c^2 ))=(√(64))=8  ∣q∣=(√(d^2 +e^2 +f^2 ))=(√(49))=7  ad+be+cf=p∙q=∣p∣∣q∣cos θ  56=8×7 cos θ  ⇒cos θ=1 ⇒θ=0° ⇒p//q  ⇒(d/a)=(e/b)=(f/c)=k=±((∣q∣)/(∣p∣))=±(7/8)  ⇒((d+e+f)/(a+b+c))=k=±(7/8)

p=(a,b,c)q=(d,e,f)p∣=a2+b2+c2=64=8q∣=d2+e2+f2=49=7ad+be+cf=pq=∣p∣∣qcosθ56=8×7cosθcosθ=1θ=0°p//qda=eb=fc=k=±qp=±78d+e+fa+b+c=k=±78

Commented by deleteduser1 last updated on 15/Jul/23

Observe that d^2 +e^2 +f^2 =k(ad+be+cf)=56k≥0  ⇒k is positive

Observethatd2+e2+f2=k(ad+be+cf)=56k0kispositive

Commented by mr W last updated on 17/Jul/23

yes, you are right! thanks!

yes,youareright!thanks!

Commented by kapoorshah last updated on 17/Jul/23

nice

nice

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