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Question Number 194693 by MM42 last updated on 13/Jul/23
iffn=fn−1+fn−2;f1=f2=1thenprovethat5∣f5n
Answered by Frix last updated on 13/Jul/23
f1=k1f2=k2fn=fn−1+fn−2∀n⩾3⇒fn=3fn−5+5fn−4∀n⩾65∣fn−5⇔5∣fn∀n⩾6
Commented by MM42 last updated on 13/Jul/23
that′sright
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