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Question Number 195540 by 073 last updated on 04/Aug/23

Commented by Frix last updated on 04/Aug/23

$$i)1$$$$ii)1$$$$iii)1$$

Commented by 073 last updated on 04/Aug/23

$$\mathrm{prove}\mathrm{please}?$$

Answered by MM42 last updated on 05/Aug/23

$$ln\mathrm{\Omega }={lim}_{x\to 0^{+}}\frac{lnx}{\frac{1}{x}}\stackrel{hop}{=}{lim}_{x\to 0^{+}}\frac{\frac{1}{x}}{-\frac{1}{x^2}}=0\Rightarrow \mathrm{\Omega }=1$$$$therestissimilartothesamemetod$$

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