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Question Number 195733 by York12 last updated on 09/Aug/23
provethat∑∞n=2[Bn_(n−2)!]=e(3−e)(e−1)3whereBn_isthen−thbernouli′snumber
Answered by witcher3 last updated on 09/Aug/23
∑n⩾0Bnxnn!=xex−1=f(x)f′(x)=∑n⩾1xn−1(n−1)!Bnf″(x)=∑n⩾2Bnxn−2(n−2)!f′(x)=(ex−1)−xex(ex−1)2f″(x)=−xex(ex−1)2−2ex(ex−1)(ex−1−xex)(ex−1)4=−xe2x+xex−2e2x+2ex+2xe2x(ex−1)3=xe2x+xex−2e2x+2ex(ex−1)3f″(1)=3e−e2(e−1)3=∑n⩾1Bn(n−2)!
Commented by York12 last updated on 10/Aug/23
Icannotfindwords,butthankssomuchsir
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