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Question Number 196674 by Erico last updated on 29/Aug/23

$$\mathrm{prove}\mathrm{that}$$$$\underset{\mathrm{n}\to +\mathrm{\infty }}{\lim }{(-1)}^{\mathrm{n}-1}+\underset{\mathrm{p}=2}{\sum ^{\mathrm{n}}}{(-1)}^{\mathrm{p}}\mathrm{pln}\left(\frac{\mathrm{p}+1}{\mathrm{p}-1}\right)=\ln \left(\pi \right)$$

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