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Question Number 198339 by cherokeesay last updated on 18/Oct/23

Answered by witcher3 last updated on 18/Oct/23

$$\mathrm{didint}\mathrm{existe}$$$$(\mathrm{x},\mathrm{y})=(\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}},2-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}});\mathrm{n}⩾1$$$$\mathrm{n}\to \mathrm{\infty }$$$$(1+\frac{1}{{\mathrm{x}}^2}+\frac{1}{{(\mathrm{x}+1)}^2})\to \mathrm{\infty }$$

Commented by cherokeesay last updated on 18/Oct/23

$$thankyousir!$$

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