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Question Number 199922 by Mingma last updated on 11/Nov/23

Answered by deleteduser1 last updated on 11/Nov/23

WLOG,let C be the origin and let AD coincide  with the real axis;then a=a^− ;b=−b^− ;d=d^− ;e=−e^−   ((b−a)/(−b−a))=((a−e)/(−e−a))⇒−be+2a^2 =+eb⇒a^2 =be  ((b−a)/(−b−a))=((b−d)/(d+b))⇒b^2 −ad=−b^2 +ad⇒b^2 =ad  ((b−a)/(−b−a))=((h−a)/(h^− −a))⇒bh^− −ah^− =−bh+2ab−ah  ⇒h^− (b−a)=−h(b+a)+2ab...(i)  (h/h^− )=((a−b)/(−b−a))⇒−h(b+a)=h^− (a−b)...(ii)  (i)+(ii)⇒0=−2h(b+a)+2ab⇒h=((ab)/(b+a))  ((i−o)/(i^− −o^− ))=^? ((e−d)/(d+e))⇔((((ab)/(2b+2a))−((a+b)/2))/(((−ab)/(−2b+2a))−((a−b)/2)))=(((a^2 /b)−(b^2 /a))/((a^3 +b^3 )/(ab)))  ⇔((([a^2 +b^2 +ab])/((b+a)))/(([a^2 +b^2 −ab])/((a−b))))=(((a−b)(a^2 +b^2 +ab))/((a+b)(a^2 +b^2 −ab)))⇔0=0  ⇒((i−o)/(i^− −o^− ))=((e−d)/(d+e))⇒IO⊥ED

WLOG,letCbetheoriginandletADcoincidewiththerealaxis;thena=a;b=b;d=d;e=ebaba=aeeabe+2a2=+eba2=bebaba=bdd+bb2ad=b2+adb2=adbaba=hahabhah=bh+2abahh(ba)=h(b+a)+2ab...(i)hh=abbah(b+a)=h(ab)...(ii)(i)+(ii)0=2h(b+a)+2abh=abb+aioio=?edd+eab2b+2aa+b2ab2b+2aab2=a2bb2aa3+b3ab[a2+b2+ab](b+a)[a2+b2ab](ab)=(ab)(a2+b2+ab)(a+b)(a2+b2ab)0=0ioio=edd+eIOED

Commented by Mingma last updated on 11/Nov/23

Very elegant, sir!

Answered by ajfour last updated on 11/Nov/23

let H be origin.  I(0,b)   C(0,2b)  A(−r+a, 0)    B(r+a, 0)  d=(2r)(((2b)/(r−a)))  e=(2r)(((2b)/(r+a)))  slope of DE    m_(CD) =((d−e)/(2r))=((4ab)/(r^2 −a^2 ))  but  (√((r−a)(r+a)))=2b  ⇒  m_(CD) =(a/b)  slope of OI =m_(OI) =−(b/a)  =−(1/m_(CD) )  ⇒  OI ⊥ CD

letHbeorigin.I(0,b)C(0,2b)A(r+a,0)B(r+a,0)d=(2r)(2bra)e=(2r)(2br+a)slopeofDEmCD=de2r=4abr2a2but(ra)(r+a)=2bmCD=abslopeofOI=mOI=ba=1mCDOICD

Commented by Mingma last updated on 11/Nov/23

Nice one, sir!

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