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Question Number 20102 by ajfour last updated on 21/Aug/17

Solve the equation:  (log _(sin x) cos x)^2 =1

$${Solve}\:{the}\:{equation}: \\ $$$$\left(\mathrm{log}\:_{\mathrm{sin}\:{x}} \mathrm{cos}\:{x}\right)^{\mathrm{2}} =\mathrm{1} \\ $$

Answered by allizzwell23 last updated on 21/Aug/17

  log_(sin x) cos x = 1    cos x = (sin x)    cos x = sin x    x = (π/4)

$$\:\:\mathrm{log}_{\mathrm{sin}\:{x}} \mathrm{cos}\:{x}\:=\:\mathrm{1} \\ $$$$\:\:\mathrm{cos}\:{x}\:=\:\left(\mathrm{sin}\:{x}\right) \\ $$$$\:\:\mathrm{cos}\:{x}\:=\:\mathrm{sin}\:{x} \\ $$$$\:\:{x}\:=\:\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{4}} \\ $$$$ \\ $$$$ \\ $$

Answered by sma3l2996 last updated on 21/Aug/17

(((ln(cosx))/(ln(sinx))))^2 =1⇔(ln(cosx))^2 =(ln(sinx))^2   ln(cosx)=ln(sinx)  or  ln(cosx)=−ln(sinx)  so x=(π/4)+2kπ  or  cosx=(1/(sinx)) and that imposible  so than x=π/4+2kπ   \ k=(0,1,2,3,...)

$$\left(\frac{{ln}\left({cosx}\right)}{{ln}\left({sinx}\right)}\right)^{\mathrm{2}} =\mathrm{1}\Leftrightarrow\left({ln}\left({cosx}\right)\right)^{\mathrm{2}} =\left({ln}\left({sinx}\right)\right)^{\mathrm{2}} \\ $$$${ln}\left({cosx}\right)={ln}\left({sinx}\right)\:\:{or}\:\:{ln}\left({cosx}\right)=−{ln}\left({sinx}\right) \\ $$$${so}\:{x}=\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{4}}+\mathrm{2}{k}\pi\:\:{or}\:\:{cosx}=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{sinx}}\:{and}\:{that}\:{imposible} \\ $$$${so}\:{than}\:{x}=\pi/\mathrm{4}+\mathrm{2}{k}\pi\:\:\:\backslash\:{k}=\left(\mathrm{0},\mathrm{1},\mathrm{2},\mathrm{3},...\right) \\ $$

Commented by sma3l2996 last updated on 21/Aug/17

you welcome

$${you}\:{welcome} \\ $$

Commented by ajfour last updated on 21/Aug/17

thanks sir, for general solution.

$${thanks}\:{sir},\:{for}\:{general}\:{solution}. \\ $$

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