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Question Number 201149 by Mingma last updated on 30/Nov/23

Answered by witcher3 last updated on 03/Dec/23

$$\mathrm{x}=\mathrm{n}\in \mathbb{N}\mathrm{y}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}},\mathrm{z}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}},\mathrm{n}⩾2$$$$\mathrm{\forall }\mathrm{n}\in \mathbb{N}-\{0,1\}(\mathrm{n},\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}},\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}})\mathrm{is}\mathrm{solution}$$$$$$

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