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Question Number 202592 by Calculusboy last updated on 30/Dec/23

 If  I_n  denotes ∫z^n e^(1/z) dz, then show that  (n+1)!I_n =I_0 +e^(1/z) (1∙!z^2 +2∙!z^3 +∙∙∙+n!∙z^(n+1) )

IfIndenoteszne1zdz,thenshowthat(n+1)!In=I0+e1z(1!z2+2!z3++n!zn+1)

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