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Question Number 204468 by MathedUp last updated on 18/Feb/24
HowCanweprove∑∞h=−∞Jh(z)=1
Answered by Peace last updated on 19/Feb/24
Jn−1(x)+jn+1(x)=2nxjn(x).....(1)letfx(y)=∑∞−∞jn(x)yn⇒yfx(y)+f(y)y=2xyΣnjn(x)yn−1=2yx(fx′(y))⇒fx′(y)=fx(y)(x2+x2y2)fx(y)=ex2(y−1y)=∑∞−∞jn(x)yn;y=1⇒1=∑+∞−∞jn(x)
Commented by MathedUp last updated on 19/Feb/24
thx!
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