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Question Number 206273 by EmGent last updated on 10/Apr/24
Doesanyoneknowhowthisworks?Ihavedψ=(x2−cy2)dyAndmyphysicsteachersaysitis(orcanbe)aharmonicfunction(Δψ=0)Cananyoneexplain?
Answered by aleks041103 last updated on 11/Apr/24
Since∃dψ,thendψ=∂ψ∂xdx+∂ψ∂ydy=(x2−cy2)dy⇒{∂xψ=0∂yψ=x2−cy2itisobviousthat∂xψ,∂yψarecontinuous.⇒ψ∈C1Alsoitiseasilyseenthat∃∂x2ψ,∂x∂yψ,∂y∂xψ,∂y2ψ.So,ψistwicedifferentiableandisoncecontinouslydifferentiable.ThereforeSchwartzruleapplies:∂2ψ∂x∂y=∂2ψ∂y∂xBUT∂2ψ∂x∂y=∂∂x(∂ψ∂y)=∂∂x(x2−cy2)=2x∂2ψ∂y∂x=∂∂y(∂ψ∂x)=∂∂y(0)=0BUT2x≠0⇒∄ψ:dψ=(x2−cy2)dyTherefore,suchψcannotbeharmonic,sincesuchψdoesn′texist.
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