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Question Number 211528 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 12/Sep/24

             I = ∫_0 ^( 1) (( tanh^(−1)  (x^2  ))/x^( 2) ) dx= ?

I=01tanh1(x2)x2dx=?

Commented by Frix last updated on 12/Sep/24

Using Feynman′s Technique  f(α)=∫_0 ^1  ((tanh^(−1)  (αx^2 ))/x^2 )dx  I get I=f(1)=(π/4)+((ln 2)/2)

UsingFeynmansTechniquef(α)=10tanh1(αx2)x2dxIgetI=f(1)=π4+ln22

Commented by mnjuly1970 last updated on 12/Sep/24

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