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Question Number 211528 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 12/Sep/24
I=∫01tanh−1(x2)x2dx=?
Commented by Frix last updated on 12/Sep/24
UsingFeynman′sTechniquef(α)=∫10tanh−1(αx2)x2dxIgetI=f(1)=π4+ln22
Commented by mnjuly1970 last updated on 12/Sep/24
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