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Question Number 212001 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 26/Sep/24
provethat:∑k∈Z(−1)kx+kπ=1sin(x)−−−−−−−−−
Answered by Berbere last updated on 27/Sep/24
∑k∈Z∫01(−1)ktx−1+kπdt=∑k∈Z(−1)kx+kπ=S(x)S(x)=S1(x)−S1(−x)+1xS1(x)=∑k⩾0(−1)kx+kπ=∑k⩾0∫01(−tπ)ktx−1dt=∫01tx−11+tπdt=∫01tx−1(1−tπ)1−t2πdt=∫01zx−12π(1−z12)1−z.z12π−1dz(2π)=1(2π)∫01(zx2π−1−zx2π−12)(1−z)−1dzΨ(1+z)=−γ+∫011−tz−11−tdt=1(2π)[Ψ(x2π+12)−Ψ(x2π)]S=1(2π)[Ψ(x2π+12)−Ψ(x2π)−Ψ(12−x2π)+Ψ(−x2π)]=12ππ[cot(π(x2π+12)−[Ψ(1+x2π)−2πx]+Ψ(−x2π)]=12π[−2πx+πcot(x2+π2)+πcot(π+x2)]=−1x+12[sin(x2()cos(x2)+cos(x2)sin(x2)]=−1x+12cos(x2)sin(x2)=−1x+1sin(x)S=S1−S1(−x)+1x+1sin(x)=1sin(x)
Commented by mnjuly1970 last updated on 27/Sep/24
thanksalotSir...
Commented by Berbere last updated on 27/Sep/24
WithePleasur
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