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Question Number 212464 by liuxinnan last updated on 14/Oct/24
Commented by liuxinnan last updated on 14/Oct/24
isitright
Answered by MrGaster last updated on 14/Oct/24
Theaboveprocessis.correctLetmeexplainiteher.Firstlygiventhefunctionalrelationshipy=f(x)anditsinversefunctionx=φ(y).Accordingtothederivativeformulaforeinversfunctionsweknowathtify=f(x),thenf′(x)=dydxSimilarlyfortheinversecfuntionx=φ(y),wehaveφ′(y)=dxdySincexandyareinareciprocalirelationshpasinverseifunctons,dydxanddxdyarereciprocalsofeachotherwhichmeans:φ′(x)=dxdy=1dydx=1f′(x)Next,sincex=φ(y),wecansubstitutexwithφ(y),thusobtaining:φ′(y)=1f′[φ(y)]
Commented by liuxinnan last updated on 15/Oct/24
thanks
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