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Question Number 214631 by issac last updated on 14/Dec/24

$$\mathrm{why}\int {\int }_{\partial \mathrm{D}}\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}}\cdot \mathrm{d}\overrightarrow{\mathbf{a}}=0$$$$\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}}\mathrm{ia}\mathrm{magnetic}\mathrm{Field}$$

Answered by MrGaster last updated on 24/Dec/24

$$\because ▽.\overrightarrow{B}=0$$$$\therefore \int {\int }_{\partial D}+\overrightarrow{B}\cdot d\overrightarrow{a}=\int \int {\int }_{D}0d\mathrm{v}$$$$\therefore \int {\int }_{\partial D}\overrightarrow{B}\cdot d\overrightarrow{a}=0$$

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