Question Number 23663 by Anoop kumar last updated on 03/Nov/17 | ||
$${solve} \\ $$$$ \\ $$$$\underset{−\mathrm{1}} {\int}^{\mathrm{1}_{} } {x}^{\mathrm{2}} {d}\left({lnx}\right) \\ $$$$ \\ $$$$ \\ $$$$ \\ $$ | ||
Commented by prakash jain last updated on 03/Nov/17 | ||
$$\mathrm{You}\:\mathrm{are}\:\mathrm{correct}.\:\mathrm{Thanks}. \\ $$ | ||
Commented by prakash jain last updated on 03/Nov/17 | ||
$$\mathrm{Does}\:\mathrm{the}\:\mathrm{integral}\:\mathrm{converge}? \\ $$$$\mathrm{ln}\:{x}\:\mathrm{for}\:{x}=−\mathrm{1}? \\ $$ | ||
Commented by $@ty@m last updated on 03/Nov/17 | ||
$${Here}\:\mathrm{ln}{x}=−\mathrm{1}\:\:{not}\:{x} \\ $$ | ||
Answered by $@ty@m last updated on 03/Nov/17 | ||
$${Let}\:\mathrm{ln}\:{x}={t} \\ $$$$\Rightarrow{e}^{{t}} ={x} \\ $$$$\underset{−\mathrm{1}} {\int}^{\mathrm{1}_{} } {x}^{\mathrm{2}} {d}\left({lnx}\right)=\underset{−\mathrm{1}} {\overset{\mathrm{1}} {\int}}{e}^{\mathrm{2}{t}} {dt} \\ $$$$=\left[\frac{{e}^{\mathrm{2}{t}} }{\mathrm{2}}\underset{−\mathrm{1}} {\overset{\mathrm{1}} {\right]}} \\ $$$$=\frac{{e}^{\mathrm{2}} −{e}^{−\mathrm{2}} }{\mathrm{2}} \\ $$ | ||