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Question Number 30089 by tawa tawa last updated on 16/Feb/18

$$\mathrm{prove}\mathrm{the}\mathrm{convergence}\mathrm{or}\mathrm{divergence}\mathrm{of}{\left(\frac{\mathrm{n}-1}{\mathrm{n}}\right)}_{\mathrm{n}=1}^{\mathrm{\infty }}$$

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