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Question Number 32371 by .none. last updated on 24/Mar/18
−1⟨x⟨0x2−(x+1x)2−4=−2x+1xWhy?
Commented by abdo imad last updated on 25/Mar/18
wehave0<−x<1weusethech.t=−x⇒0<t<1andprovethatt2−(t+1t)2−4=2t−1twehavet2−(t+1t)2−4=t−t2+2+1t2−4=t−(t−1t)2=t−∣t−1t∣butwehavet−1t=t2−1t<0=t−(1t−t)=2t−1t=−2x+1x.
Answered by MJS last updated on 24/Mar/18
I.x2=−xwithx<0[i.e.(−2)2=4=2]II.(x+1x)2−4=[x≠0]=x2+2+1x2−4=x2−2+1x2=(x−1x)2==(x−1x)with−1<x<0[−1<x<0⇒∣x∣<1⇒∣1x∣>1⇒⇒(x−1x)>0;i.e.−12−1−12==−12+2=32]I.−II.−x−(x−1x)=−2x+1x
Answered by $@ty@m last updated on 24/Mar/18
x2=∣x∣=−x(∵−1<x<0)&(x+1x)2−4=∣x−1x∣=1x−x
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