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Question Number 33337 by prof Abdo imad last updated on 14/Apr/18 | ||
$${let}\:\alpha>\mathrm{0}\:{prove}\:{that} \\ $$ $$\sum_{{k}=\mathrm{1}} ^{{n}} \:\left(\mathrm{1}−\alpha\frac{{k}}{{n}}\right)_{{n}\rightarrow\infty} ^{{n}} \rightarrow\:\frac{{e}^{−\alpha} }{\mathrm{1}−{e}^{−\alpha} } \\ $$ | ||