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Question Number 34485 by candre last updated on 07/May/18

$$\mathrm{is}\mathrm{there}\mathrm{a}\mathrm{function}\mathrm{such}\mathrm{that}:$$$$\mathrm{\forall }x⩾0;f(x+T_1)=f\left(x\right)$$$$\mathrm{\forall }x⩽0;f(x-T_2)=f\left(x\right)$$$$f\mathrm{is}\mathrm{diferentiabre}\mathrm{in}x=0$$

Answered by MJS last updated on 07/May/18

$$f\left(x\right):y=c;c\in \mathbb{R}$$

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