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Question Number 35084 by Raj Singh last updated on 15/May/18

Commented by tanmay.chaudhury50@gmail.com last updated on 15/May/18

Answered by tanmay.chaudhury50@gmail.com last updated on 15/May/18

$$y={tan}^{-1}(sinx+cosx)$$$$\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{1}{1+{(sinx+cosx)}^2}\times (cosx-sinx)$$$$cosx>sinxin(0,\mathrm{\Pi }/4)$$$$so\frac{dy}{dx}>0soyisincreasingfunctionin(0,\mathrm{\Pi }/4)$$

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