while proving F=ma newtons 2nd law we put F=1 when m=1 and a=1 and thus k=1 why not F=other value except 1...


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Question Number 35474 by tanmay.chaudhury50@gmail.com last updated on 19/May/18

$w h i l e p r o v i n g F = m a n e w t o n s 2 n d l a w w e p u t$ $F = 1 w h e n m = 1 a n d a = 1 a n d t h u s k = 1$ $w h y n o t F = o t h e r v a l u e e x c e p t 1 . . .$
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