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Question Number 36728 by a1bgt3@gmail.com last updated on 04/Jun/18

the improper integral ∫_0 ^1 (dx/(√(1−x^2 ))) converges to

theimproperintegral01dx1x2convergesto

Commented by abdo.msup.com last updated on 05/Jun/18

I =lim_(ξ→0)  ∫_ξ ^1    (dx/(√(1−x^2 )))  but the changrment  x =sinθ  give    ∫_ξ ^1    (dx/(√(1−x^2 ))) = ∫_(arcsin(ξ)) ^(π/2)   ((cosθ dθ)/(cosθ))dθ  =(π/2) −arcsin(ξ) ⇒lim_(ξ→0) ∫_ξ ^1   (dx/(√(1−x^2 ))) =(π/2)  so I =(π/2) .

I=limξ0ξ1dx1x2butthechangrmentx=sinθgiveξ1dx1x2=arcsin(ξ)π2cosθdθcosθdθ=π2arcsin(ξ)limξ0ξ1dx1x2=π2soI=π2.

Answered by MJS last updated on 04/Jun/18

∫_0 ^1 (dx/(√(1−x^2 )))=[arcsin x]_0 ^1 =(π/2)  ...nothing improper about this...

10dx1x2=[arcsinx]01=π2...nothingimproperaboutthis...

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