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Question Number 40150 by maxmathsup by imad last updated on 16/Jul/18

let f_n (x) =(1/((1+x^n )^(1+(1/n)) ))   ddfined on [0,1]  1) prove that f_n →^(cs)  f (n→+∞)  2) calculate I_n = ∫_0 ^1  f_n (x)dx

$${let}\:{f}_{{n}} \left({x}\right)\:=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\left(\mathrm{1}+{x}^{{n}} \right)^{\mathrm{1}+\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{n}}} }\:\:\:{ddfined}\:{on}\:\left[\mathrm{0},\mathrm{1}\right] \\ $$$$\left.\mathrm{1}\right)\:{prove}\:{that}\:{f}_{{n}} \rightarrow^{{cs}} \:{f}\:\left({n}\rightarrow+\infty\right) \\ $$$$\left.\mathrm{2}\right)\:{calculate}\:{I}_{{n}} =\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \:{f}_{{n}} \left({x}\right){dx} \\ $$$$ \\ $$

Commented by maxmathsup by imad last updated on 21/Jul/18

1) we have f_n (x) =(1+x^n )^(−(1+(1/n)))    =e^(−(1+(1/n))ln(1+x^n ))     but  ln(1+x^n )∼ x^n    (n→+∞) ⇒−(1+(1/n))ln(1+x^n ) ∼−x^n  −(x^n /n) ⇒  f_n (x) ∼  e^(−x^n  −(x^n /n))   →^(cs)     f(x)=1  (n→+∞)

$$\left.\mathrm{1}\right)\:{we}\:{have}\:{f}_{{n}} \left({x}\right)\:=\left(\mathrm{1}+{x}^{{n}} \right)^{−\left(\mathrm{1}+\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{n}}\right)} \:\:\:={e}^{−\left(\mathrm{1}+\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{n}}\right){ln}\left(\mathrm{1}+{x}^{{n}} \right)} \:\:\:\:{but} \\ $$$${ln}\left(\mathrm{1}+{x}^{{n}} \right)\sim\:{x}^{{n}} \:\:\:\left({n}\rightarrow+\infty\right)\:\Rightarrow−\left(\mathrm{1}+\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{n}}\right){ln}\left(\mathrm{1}+{x}^{{n}} \right)\:\sim−{x}^{{n}} \:−\frac{{x}^{{n}} }{{n}}\:\Rightarrow \\ $$$${f}_{{n}} \left({x}\right)\:\sim\:\:{e}^{−{x}^{{n}} \:−\frac{{x}^{{n}} }{{n}}} \:\:\rightarrow^{{cs}} \:\:\:\:{f}\left({x}\right)=\mathrm{1}\:\:\left({n}\rightarrow+\infty\right) \\ $$

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