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Question Number 42668 by bbnnftm833 last updated on 31/Aug/18

If  ∣a sin^2 θ+b sin θ cos θ+c cos^2 θ−(1/2)(a−c)∣     ≤ (1/2) k, then k^2  is equal to

$$\mathrm{If} \\ $$$$\mid{a}\:\mathrm{sin}^{\mathrm{2}} \theta+{b}\:\mathrm{sin}\:\theta\:\mathrm{cos}\:\theta+{c}\:\mathrm{cos}^{\mathrm{2}} \theta−\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}\left({a}−{c}\right)\mid \\ $$$$\:\:\:\leqslant\:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}\:{k},\:\mathrm{then}\:{k}^{\mathrm{2}} \:\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{equal}\:\mathrm{to} \\ $$

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