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Question Number 43057 by maxmathsup by imad last updated on 06/Sep/18
findthevalueofI=∫0∞cos(πx2)−sin(πx2)(1+x2)2dx
Commented by maxmathsup by imad last updated on 07/Sep/18
wehaveI=∫0∞cos(πx2)(1+x2)2dx−∫0∞sin(πx2)(1+x2)2dx=H−Kwehave2H=∫−∞+∞cos(πx2)(1+x2)2dx=Re(∫−∞+∞eiπx2(1+x2)2dx)letφ(z)=eiπz2(z2+1)2wehaveφ(z)=eiπz2(z−i)2(z+i)2thepolesofφare+−i(doubles)∫−∞+∞φ(z)dz=2iπRes(φ,i)butRes(φ,i)=limz→i1(2−1)!{(z−i)2φ(z)}(1)=limz→i{eiπz2(z+i)2}(1)=limz→i2iπzeiπz2(z+i)2−2(z+i)eiπz2(z+i)4=limz→i2iπeiπz2(z+i)−2eiπz2(z+i)3=2iπe−iπ(2i)−2e−iπ−8i=(−4π−2)e−iπ−8i=(2π+1)e−iπ4i⇒∫−∞+∞φ(z)dz=2iπ(2π+1)e−iπ4i=(2π+1)e−iπ2=2π+12(−1)⇒H=−14(2π+1)also∫0∞sin(πx2)(1+x2)2dx=Im(12∫−∞+∞eiπx2(1+x2)2)=0⇒I=−π2−14.
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