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Question Number 47043 by 23kpratik last updated on 04/Nov/18

if p is a prime number and (a,p)= then prove that a^(p−1) ≡ 1(mod p)

$${if}\:{p}\:{is}\:{a}\:{prime}\:{number}\:{and}\:\left({a},{p}\right)=\:{then}\:{prove}\:{that}\:{a}^{{p}−\mathrm{1}} \equiv\:\mathrm{1}\left({mod}\:{p}\right) \\ $$

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