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Question Number 47712 by Rio Michael last updated on 13/Nov/18

show that    ^(^2  C_2  ) C_n = (1/((1−n)!(n−1)(n−2)(n−3)...3(2)(1)))

$${show}\:{that}\: \\ $$$$\:\:^{\:^{\mathrm{2}} \:{C}_{\mathrm{2}} \:} {C}_{{n}} =\:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\left(\mathrm{1}−{n}\right)!\left({n}−\mathrm{1}\right)\left({n}−\mathrm{2}\right)\left({n}−\mathrm{3}\right)...\mathrm{3}\left(\mathrm{2}\right)\left(\mathrm{1}\right)} \\ $$

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