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Question Number 52600 by Tip Top last updated on 10/Jan/19
IfPndenotestheproductofthebinomialcoefficientsintheexpansionof(1+x)n,thenPn+1Pnequals
Commented by Abdo msup. last updated on 10/Jan/19
wehave(x+1)n=∑k=0nCnkxk⇒Pn=∏k=0nCnk=Cno.Cn1.....Cnn⇒Pn+1=Cn+10.Cn+11...Cn+1n+1⇒Pn+1Pn=∏k=0nCnk∏k=0n+1Cn+1k=∏k=0nCnk∏k=0n(n+1)!k!(n+1−k)!=∏k=0nCnk∏k=0nn+1(n+1−k)∏k=0nn!k!(n−k)!=∏k=0n(n+1−k)n+1=(n+1)!(n+1)n+1=(n+1)n!(n+1)(n+1)n=n!(n+1)n.
Answered by tanmay.chaudhury50@gmail.com last updated on 10/Jan/19
pn=nc0×nc1×nc2...ncn←productofntermspn+1=n+1c0×n+1c1×n+1c2..×n+1cn+1←productof(n+1)termsnowratioofr+1thterm=n+1crncr=(n+1)!r!(n+1−r)!n!r!(n−r)!=(n+1)!n!×(n−r)!(n+1−r)!=n+1n+1−rsopn+1pn.==n+1n+1−0×n+1n+1−1×n+1n+1−2...=(n+1)n(n+1)!
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