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Question Number 55583 by Tinkutara last updated on 27/Feb/19

Answered by mr W last updated on 27/Feb/19

$$\frac{2\times 2!2!}{4!}=\frac{1}{3}$$$$\Rightarrow \left(a\right)$$

Commented by mr W last updated on 27/Feb/19

$$youarerightsir.answera)iscorrect.$$

Commented by Tinkutara last updated on 27/Feb/19

Thanks Sir!

Commented by Tinkutara last updated on 27/Feb/19

Sir can you explain please? Why answer is not a because there may also be a case when two good machines are detected in first two trials?

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