Question and Answers Forum

All Questions      Topic List

Others Questions

Previous in All Question      Next in All Question      

Previous in Others      Next in Others      

Question Number 56205 by 121194 last updated on 12/Mar/19

find (or prove it can′t exist) a f:R→R diferentiable  such that  ∫_(a−δ) ^(a+δ) f(x)dx=0,∀a∈R,δ>0  (df/dx)=0,∀x∈R

$$\mathrm{find}\:\left(\mathrm{or}\:\mathrm{prove}\:\mathrm{it}\:\mathrm{can}'\mathrm{t}\:\mathrm{exist}\right)\:\mathrm{a}\:{f}:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}\:\mathrm{diferentiable} \\ $$ $$\mathrm{such}\:\mathrm{that} \\ $$ $$\underset{{a}−\delta} {\overset{{a}+\delta} {\int}}{f}\left({x}\right){dx}=\mathrm{0},\forall{a}\in\mathbb{R},\delta>\mathrm{0} \\ $$ $$\frac{{df}}{{dx}}=\mathrm{0},\forall{x}\in\mathbb{R} \\ $$

Answered by MJS last updated on 12/Mar/19

f(x)=0

$${f}\left({x}\right)=\mathrm{0} \\ $$

Terms of Service

Privacy Policy

Contact: info@tinkutara.com