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Question Number 56852 by peter frank last updated on 25/Mar/19

Answered by MJS last updated on 25/Mar/19

$$\mathrm{not}\mathrm{sure}\mathrm{if}f\circ g\mathrm{means}f\left(g\right)\mathrm{or}g\left(f\right)$$$$\mathrm{but}{\mathrm{it}}^{\prime }\mathrm{s}\mathrm{only}\mathrm{a}\mathrm{matter}\mathrm{of}\mathrm{thinking}\mathrm{logically}$$$$f\left(g\left(x\right)\right)=\{\begin{array}{l}1;x<-1\\ 3;-1⩽x<-\frac{1}{2}\\ 4x^2;-\frac{1}{2}⩽x⩽\frac{1}{2}\\ 2;\frac{1}{2}<x⩽1\\ 1;x>1\end{array}$$$$g\left(f\left(x\right)\right)=\{\begin{array}{l}1;x<-1\\ 2x^2;-1⩽x⩽1\\ 1;x>1\end{array}$$

Commented by rahul 19 last updated on 25/Mar/19

fog means f(g) and gof means g(f).

Commented by MJS last updated on 25/Mar/19

$$\mathrm{interestingly}\mathrm{this}\mathrm{is}\mathrm{not}\mathrm{standardized}$$

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