Question Number 57736 by Hassen_Timol last updated on 10/Apr/19
$${Can}\:{we}\:{use}\:{L}'{H}\hat {{o}pital}'{s}\:{rule}\:{if}\:{we}\:{have} \\ $$$${a}\:{fraction}\:{in}\:{the}\:{form}\:\left(+\infty\right)/\left(−\infty\right)\:\:\:? \\ $$
Answered by MJS last updated on 10/Apr/19
$$\mathrm{yes} \\ $$
Commented by Hassen_Timol last updated on 10/Apr/19
$${Thank}\:{you}\:{sir}...\:{and}\:{for}\:\left(\mathrm{0}/\infty\right)\:{or}\:\left(\infty/\mathrm{0}\right)\:\:\:? \\ $$
Commented by MJS last updated on 10/Apr/19
$$\mathrm{0}/\infty\:\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{ok} \\ $$$$\infty/\mathrm{0}\:\mathrm{seems}\:\mathrm{not}\:\mathrm{ok}.\:\mathrm{can}\:\mathrm{you}\:\mathrm{give}\:\mathrm{an}\:\mathrm{example}? \\ $$