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Question Number 57736 by Hassen_Timol last updated on 10/Apr/19

$$Canweuse{L}^{\prime }H{\widehat{opital}}^{\prime }sruleifwehave$$$$afractionintheform(+\mathrm{\infty })/(-\mathrm{\infty })?$$

Answered by MJS last updated on 10/Apr/19

$$\mathrm{yes}$$

Commented by Hassen_Timol last updated on 10/Apr/19

$$Thankyousir...andfor\left(0/\mathrm{\infty }\right)or\left(\mathrm{\infty }/0\right)?$$

Commented by MJS last updated on 10/Apr/19

$$0/\mathrm{\infty }\mathrm{is}\mathrm{ok}$$$$\mathrm{\infty }/0\mathrm{seems}\mathrm{not}\mathrm{ok}.\mathrm{can}\mathrm{you}\mathrm{give}\mathrm{an}\mathrm{example}?$$

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