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Question Number 61495 by bhanukumarb2@gmail.com last updated on 03/Jun/19

Commented by bhanukumarb2@gmail.com last updated on 03/Jun/19

prove second in which book i can get   these type approximation

provesecondinwhichbookicangetthesetypeapproximation

Commented by bhanukumarb2@gmail.com last updated on 03/Jun/19

prove by mvt

provebymvt

Commented by tanmay last updated on 03/Jun/19

we have to prove ((x^2 /2)+cosx)>1  from graph  it is clear...

wehavetoprove(x22+cosx)>1fromgraphitisclear...

Commented by tanmay last updated on 03/Jun/19

Commented by tanmay last updated on 03/Jun/19

Commented by tanmay last updated on 03/Jun/19

Commented by tanmay last updated on 03/Jun/19

Answered by MJS last updated on 03/Jun/19

f(x)=cos x has a local maximum at x=0  g(x)=1−(x^2 /2) has an absolute maximum ar x=0  f(0)=g(0)=1    the curvature of a given function u is  ((u′′)/((1+u′^2 )^(3/2) ))  the curvature of f(x) is  c_f (x)=−((cos x)/((1+sin^2  x)^(3/2) ))  the curvature of g(x) is  c_g (x)=−(1/((1+x^2 )^(3/2) ))  c_f (0)=c_g (0)=−1  c_f ′(0)=c_g ′(0)=0  c_f ′′(0)=4  c_g ′′(0)=3  ⇒ c_f ′ is changing faster than c_g ′  ⇒ c_f  is bent harder towards y=0 than c_g   ⇒ f is bent less than g  ⇒ because we know both share the         maximum at  ((0),(1) ) ⇒ f≥g

f(x)=cosxhasalocalmaximumatx=0g(x)=1x22hasanabsolutemaximumarx=0f(0)=g(0)=1thecurvatureofagivenfunctionuisu(1+u2)32thecurvatureoff(x)iscf(x)=cosx(1+sin2x)32thecurvatureofg(x)iscg(x)=1(1+x2)32cf(0)=cg(0)=1cf(0)=cg(0)=0cf(0)=4cg(0)=3cfischangingfasterthancgcfisbenthardertowardsy=0thancgfisbentlessthangbecauseweknowbothsharethemaximumat(01)fg

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