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Question Number 62747 by Mikael last updated on 24/Jun/19
Aref,g:R→Rdefinedbyf(x)={0,x∈R∖Qx,x∈Qg(x)={1,x=00,x≠0showthatlimx→0f(x)=0andlimy→0g(y)=0howeverlimx→0g(f(x))doesnotexist.
Answered by MJS last updated on 25/Jun/19
x∈R∖Q:limx→0f(x)=0istrivialbecausef(x)=0inthiscasex∈Q:limx→0f(x)=limp→0pq∀p∈Z∧∀q∈N★⇒⇒limx→0f(x)=limp→0pq=0limx→0g(x)=0becauseg(x)=0forx∈[−ϵ;ϵ]∀ϵ∈R+limx→0g(f(x))doesnotexistbecause∀x∈R∖Qg(f(x))=1but∀x∈Qg(f(x))=0⇒⇒limx∈R∖Q→0g(f(x))=1∧limx∈Q→0g(f(x))=0⇒limit∀x∈Rdoesn′texist
Commented by Mikael last updated on 25/Jun/19
thankyouSir.
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