Question Number 63915 by gunawan last updated on 11/Jul/19
$$\mathrm{If}\:{p}\:\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{nearly}\:\mathrm{equal}\:\:\mathrm{to}\:{q}\:\:\mathrm{and}\:\:{n}\:>\:\mathrm{1},\:\mathrm{such} \\ $$ $$\mathrm{that}\:\frac{\left({n}+\mathrm{1}\right){p}+\left({n}−\mathrm{1}\right){q}}{\left({n}−\mathrm{1}\right){p}+\left({n}+\mathrm{1}\right){q}}\:=\:\left(\frac{{p}}{{q}}\right)^{{k}} ,\:\mathrm{then}\:\mathrm{the} \\ $$ $$\mathrm{value}\:\mathrm{of}\:{k}\:\mathrm{is} \\ $$