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Question Number 64269 by Chi Mes Try last updated on 16/Jul/19

∫_(−π) ^π  [cos px−sin qx]^2 dx, where p, q are   integers is equal to

$$\underset{−\pi} {\overset{\pi} {\int}}\:\left[\mathrm{cos}\:{px}−\mathrm{sin}\:{qx}\right]^{\mathrm{2}} {dx},\:\mathrm{where}\:{p},\:{q}\:\mathrm{are}\: \\ $$$$\mathrm{integers}\:\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{equal}\:\mathrm{to} \\ $$

Answered by Tanmay chaudhury last updated on 16/Jul/19

[.] is it gelreatest integer function...

$$\left[.\right]\:{is}\:{it}\:{gelreatest}\:{integer}\:{function}... \\ $$

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