Question and Answers Forum

All Questions      Topic List

Limits Questions

Previous in All Question      Next in All Question      

Previous in Limits      Next in Limits      

Question Number 68966 by anaplak last updated on 17/Sep/19

Commented by kaivan.ahmadi last updated on 17/Sep/19

lim_(x→(π^+ /2)) (1/(cosx))=(1/0^− )=−∞

$${lim}_{{x}\rightarrow\frac{\pi^{+} }{\mathrm{2}}} \frac{\mathrm{1}}{{cosx}}=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{0}^{−} }=−\infty \\ $$

Commented by anaplak last updated on 17/Sep/19

sir please give me the answer by showing with the help of taking right hand limit

$${sir}\:{please}\:{give}\:{me}\:{the}\:{answer}\:{by}\:{showing}\:{with}\:{the}\:{help}\:{of}\:{taking}\:{right}\:{hand}\:{limit} \\ $$

Commented by kaivan.ahmadi last updated on 17/Sep/19

you can use the diagram of y=cosx and see  when x→(π^+ /2) then cosx→0^−

$${you}\:{can}\:{use}\:{the}\:{diagram}\:{of}\:{y}={cosx}\:{and}\:{see} \\ $$$${when}\:{x}\rightarrow\frac{\pi^{+} }{\mathrm{2}}\:{then}\:{cosx}\rightarrow\mathrm{0}^{−} \:\:\:\:\: \\ $$

Commented by kaivan.ahmadi last updated on 17/Sep/19

Terms of Service

Privacy Policy

Contact: info@tinkutara.com