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Question Number 73040 by mathmax by abdo last updated on 05/Nov/19
provethat∀(n,p)∈N★×N1)∑k=0p(−1)kCnk=(−1)pCn−1p2)∀(p,q)∈N2∑k=0pCp+qkCp+q−kp−k=2pCp+qp
Answered by mind is power last updated on 06/Nov/19
1)recursion2ndletsA=[1,,,p+q]inAwecangetCp+qpsetwithepelementsthenumberofidontnowthenamininglish″A={1,2}/P(A)={∅,{1},{2},{1,2}}″ifAiscardp⇒P(A)=2pslthenumberallpartitionofsetwithepelementis2pCp+qpwecanchosethiselementwepickkelementinp+qandp−kinp+q−k⇒=∑pk=0Cp+qkCp+q−kp−k=2pCp+qp
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