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Question Number 73042 by mathmax by abdo last updated on 05/Nov/19
provethatfor(n,p)∈N★2∑k=0pkCnp−kCnk=nC2n−1p−1concludethevalueof∑k=0nk(Cnk)2
Answered by mind is power last updated on 05/Nov/19
letp(x)=(x+1)n=∑nk=0CnkXkp(x).p′(x)=∑nk=0∑nj=1CknCjnxk.jxj−1coeficientofpowerp−1iswhenk+j=p=∑nk=0jCnp−jCnjXp−1p2=(x+1)2nPrime causes double exponent: use braces to clarifyPrime causes double exponent: use braces to clarifycoeficentofxp−1isnC2n−1p−1⇒∑pk=0kCnp−kCnk=nC2n−1p−1ifp=n⇒Σk(Cnk)2=nC2n−1n−1
Commented by mr W last updated on 06/Nov/19
ilearntanewmethod.thankssir!
Commented by mind is power last updated on 06/Nov/19
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