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Question Number 75041 by ~blr237~ last updated on 06/Dec/19
1)Showthatfora∈]01]thefunctionfa:R+→Rdefinedbyfa(x)=xa isa−holderfunctioninotherwaythereexistK>0suchas∀x,y>0 ∣fa(x)−fa(y)∣⩽K∣x−y∣a
Commented by~blr237~ last updated on 06/Dec/19
fora∈]0,1[
Answered by mind is power last updated on 06/Dec/19
errormypreviouspostiputinqualityinwrongwhy ifoundthisnewapproch xa−ya⩽(x−y)a...? ⇔1−(yx)a⩽(1−yx)a,<0<y<x t=yx∈]0,1[ 1−ta⩽(1−t)a⇔(1−t)a+ta⩾1 letft(a)=(1−t)a+ta=ealn(1−t)+ealn(t) f′(a)=ln(1−t)ealn(1−t)+ln(t)ealn(t)<0,sincet∈]0,1[ ⇒f(a)⩾f(1)=1−t+t=1 ⇒1⩽ta+(1−t)a ⇒xa−ya⩽∣x−y∣a faisholderk=1
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