Question and Answers Forum

All Questions      Topic List

Limits Questions

Previous in All Question      Next in All Question      

Previous in Limits      Next in Limits      

Question Number 75930 by Rio Michael last updated on 21/Dec/19

consider the function   f(x) =  { ((1+2x^2 , if x is rational)),((1 + x^4 , if x is irrational)) :}  Use the sandwich(pinchin) theorem to  prove that lim_(x→0)  f(x) = 1.

$${consider}\:{the}\:{function} \\ $$$$\:{f}\left({x}\right)\:=\:\begin{cases}{\mathrm{1}+\mathrm{2}{x}^{\mathrm{2}} ,\:{if}\:{x}\:{is}\:{rational}}\\{\mathrm{1}\:+\:{x}^{\mathrm{4}} ,\:{if}\:{x}\:{is}\:{irrational}}\end{cases} \\ $$$${Use}\:{the}\:{sandwich}\left({pinchin}\right)\:{theorem}\:{to} \\ $$$${prove}\:{that}\:\underset{{x}\rightarrow\mathrm{0}} {\mathrm{lim}}\:{f}\left({x}\right)\:=\:\mathrm{1}. \\ $$

Terms of Service

Privacy Policy

Contact: info@tinkutara.com