Question Number 79001 by gopikrishnan last updated on 22/Jan/20
$${In}\:{a}\:{binomial}\:{distribution}\:{with}\:{mean}\:\mathrm{4}\:{and}\:{the}\:{probability}\:{of}\:{success}\:{is}\:\mathrm{1}/\mathrm{3},\:{then}\:{the}\:{number}\:{of}\:{trials}\:{is} \\ $$
Commented by jagoll last updated on 22/Jan/20
$$\mathrm{mean}\:=\:\mathrm{n}×\mathrm{p} \\ $$$$\mathrm{4}=\:\mathrm{n}×\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{3}}\:\Rightarrow\mathrm{n}\:=\:\mathrm{12} \\ $$
Commented by mr W last updated on 22/Jan/20
$${please}\:{don}'{t}\:{type}\:{the}\:{whole}\:{post}\:{in}\:{a} \\ $$$${single}\:{line}!\:{it}'{s}\:{terrible}\:{to}\:{read}! \\ $$$${thank}\:{you}\:{sir}! \\ $$
Commented by gopikrishnan last updated on 22/Jan/20
$${thank}\:{u}\:{sir} \\ $$