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Question Number 81506 by Power last updated on 13/Feb/20

Commented by Power last updated on 13/Feb/20

$$\mathrm{A})1-\frac{1}{50!}\mathrm{B})1\mathrm{C})1+\frac{1}{49!}\mathrm{D})2$$

Commented by mr W last updated on 13/Feb/20

$$wehave\frac{n}{(n+1)!}=\frac{1}{n!}-\frac{1}{(n+1)!}$$$$\frac{1}{2!}+\frac{2}{3!}+...+\frac{49}{50!}$$$$=(1-\frac{1}{2!})+(\frac{1}{2!}-\frac{1}{3!})+...+(\frac{1}{49!}-\frac{1}{50!})$$$$=1-\frac{1}{50!}$$

Commented by Power last updated on 13/Feb/20

$$\mathrm{thanks}$$

Commented by Power last updated on 13/Feb/20

$$\mathrm{thanks}$$

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