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Question Number 82579 by M±th+et£s last updated on 22/Feb/20

if y=cos(ln(x))+sin(ln(x))  show that  y′′+y^′ +y=0

ify=cos(ln(x))+sin(ln(x))showthaty+y+y=0

Answered by mind is power last updated on 23/Feb/20

y′=(1/x)(−sin(ln(x))+cos(ln(x))  y′′=(1/x^2 )(−2cos(ln(x))  x^2 y′′+xy′+y=0

y=1x(sin(ln(x))+cos(ln(x))y=1x2(2cos(ln(x))x2y+xy+y=0

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